1 Peter 3:15
...and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear:
1 Thessalonians 5:21
Prove all things;...
To prove that I was in the right and that the law was abolished, I first started in Matthew and read the whole New Testament (I didn’t find out until I got to Peter that I went about it the wrong way. See: Understanding the Scriptures) I figured if there was scriptures to say that the law was abolished, it would obviously be in the New Testament. After reading the gospels, the evidence was pointing to keeping the law (See: Jesus instructed from the Law and Was Jesus For or Against the Law).
Then I read Acts and thought that the evidence was very overwhelmingly pointing to keeping the law today (See: Law Commentary on Acts). Then I got to Romans. At first when I was reading Romans, it looks like Paul is reinforcing God’s law. In the 27 verse of Chapter 1 Paul is reaffirming the law against homosexuality. In verses 29-31 Paul reaffirms the laws against fornication, covetousness, murder, being disobedient to parents, breaking covenants, and being unmerciful.
In Chapter 2 verse 9 Paul writes:
“Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;”
So the question came to my mind, “why are the Jews getting punished first over the Gentiles?” The answer can be found in a couple other scriptures
In Leviticus 26:18 God tells Israel (the people that were given the law), that if they disobey his law He would punish them seven times more. Also Jesus states in Luke 12:46-48:
“The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers. And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.”
Both of these verse show us that if you know God’s will and know his law and do not do it, you will be punished more for your sins than if you were ignorant of it. When Paul says that the Jews will be punished first he is confirming the law.
Then in verse 13 Paul says, “For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.”
This epistle was written to the Romans. At this time, they did not have the New Testament to go through to try and find the “new law”, but they did have the Mosaic law to look at. What do you think was going on though the person reading this passage back then when he says, “For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.”?
Verse 14:
For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
What law do you think Paul was referring to when he said, "For when the Gentiles, which have not the law"? It was the Mosaic law!
Verses 17-18:
Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God, And knowest his will, and approvest the things that are more excellent, being instructed out of the law;
I might not be a rocket scientist yet, but doesn’t the above verse say that the Jews “knowest his will”… “being instructed out of the law”? Doesn't this imply that to know God's will you must get it from the law?
Anyway, by the time I got to this verse, I am thinking that Paul is without a doubt saying that doing the law is “His will”. Then Paul continues to sound “pro-law” (but my thoughts changed many times before I got though Paul's epistles, and I didn't find out until I got to Peter why I it was so hard to understand them. It was because I needed to learn "the rest of the scriptures" better before I could understand Paul's epistles).
Verses 19-22
19 And art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them which are in darkness, 20An instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, which hast the form of knowledge and of the truth in the law.
21Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege?
Again, from what book did the Jews teach “a man should not steal” and “a man should not commit adultery”? It was "from of knowledge and of the truth in the law.”
Then Paul goes on to say:
23Thou that makest thy boast of the law, through breaking the law dishonourest thou God?
24For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written.
25For circumcision verily profiteth, if thou keep the law: but if thou be a breaker of the law, thy circumcision is made uncircumcision.
Paul is not saying anything new here. Paul got this doctrine right out of the “Old Testament”. (Notice: “as it is written”)
There are a few nations today that have a national identification card. These cards are signs that the person belongs to that nation. If that nation decided to kick the person out and ban his citizenship and did not take his card from him before he left, when that person tries to get back in the country, that card would not profit him at all. When the Israelites were circumcised the circumcision was a physical sign that they were apart of God’s covenant and kingdom. If they would break the law willingly, they would be “cut off” from God’s kingdom and their “circumcision” (physical identifier) would not profit them at all.
Numbers 15:
30But the soul that doeth ought presumptuously, whether he be born in the land, or a stranger, the same reproacheth the LORD; and that soul shall be cut off from among his people.
31Because he hath despised the word of the LORD, and hath broken his commandment, that soul shall utterly be cut off; his iniquity shall be upon him.
Then Paul makes his first big statement that people use against the law by saying:
26Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?
27And shall not uncircumcision which is by nature, if it fulfil the law, judge thee, who by the letter and circumcision dost transgress the law?
28For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
But how did Paul come to this conclusion? By looking at the whole context of Chapter 2 which can be summed up in one verse: “For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness…”
Notice the word “Therefore” in verse 26. Paul concludes that sin done willfully can “cut off” one’s citizenship into God’s kingdom therefore those who know not the law, but keep the law that is “written in their hearts and conscience” would count for citizenship into God’s kingdom.
Romans 3
1What advantage then has the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision?
2 Much in every way! Chiefly because to them were committed the oracles of God. (NKJV)
Isn't Paul saying that there is an advantage to be circumcised here? And notice why they have that advantage.
