Let us say Mike asked John not to curse in front of a group of children. Then John accuses Mike of being a “Hypocrite”…. What do you think would be the logical reason for John to call Mike a “hypocrite”? Is it because Mike is not perfect either and is a sinner too? Or is it because Mike curses in front of children too? When Yashua called the Pharisees “hypocrites” it was related to the question they asked.
And again, I point out that every single time Yashua calls someone a “hypocrite” he pointed out their hypocrisy (See: Matthew 7:5; 15:7-9; 16:3-4; 23:13, 14, 15, 23, 25, 27-28, 29; Mark 7:6-9: Luke 6:42; 12:56; 13:15). In the case I point out, Yashua showed them their hypocrisy when they produced the coin.
No one has yet to show me a reason that Yashua called the Pharisees “Hypocrites” that meet these two criteria.
- a. Yashua shows proof of his accusation.
b. Yashua’s accusation is related to the Pharisees question.
